The Assam Direct Recruitment Grade III Exam 2023- 2024 is ongoing from 1st September 2023- 2024 and it will continue until 12th September. The candidates appearing for the Assam Direct Recruitment Grade III Exam 2023- 2024 must prepare according to the Assam Direct Recruitment Grade III Syllabus 2023- 2024 prescribed by the UGC. Irrespective of their specialized subject, the candidates must have a good command of subjects like English, Reasoning, General Aptitude, Analytical Skills, teaching aptitude, and General Science. For more details on the Syllabus for all the specific subjects, the candidates go through the Assam Direct Recruitment Grade III Syllabus 2023- 2024.
In the following article, the candidates will find important questions in the General Science section of the Assam Direct Recruitment Grade III Exam 2023- 2024. These questions have been curated to offer high-quality preparation material for the Assam Direct Recruitment Grade III aspirants across the country. The candidates will be able to revise their lesson while solving the Assam Direct Recruitment Grade III General Science Questions.
Assam Direct Recruitment Grade 3 General Science Questions
For reference, the syllabus and exam pattern of the CUET Exam 2023- 2024 have been given below. The candidates must go through the CUET Syllabus and Exam Pattern to ensure they understand the importance of General Science to be able to crack the Assam Direct Recruitment Grade III Exam 2023- 2024.
General Science is an important aspect of a student’s life and though, is not always prescribed in the syllabus forms an important foundation for intellectual building. Some important General Science questions for Class 5 have been mentioned below. General Science Questions will help you in participating in all competitive exams conducted in school and Entrance Exams.
ADRE Assam Grade III General Science Question PDF
You will be taking these exams in the near future: UPSC, State PCS, Railway, Bank, SSC CGL, GD, CHSL, MTS, Stenographer, CPO, JE Clerk, IBPS PO, RBI Assistant, and so forth. It can be crucial for a lot of other competitive exams. You will encounter at least 20–25 General Science questions on each exam. Candidates must therefore concentrate on the globe General Science quiz questions and answers in English. Download this General Science Book for SSC Bank to access the most useful questions and solutions. All of the previous year’s General Science exam questions from various government and private exams are included here.
1.Ripening of fruits is because of which among the following plant hormones?
[A] Auxin
[B] Ethylene
[C] Gibberellins
[D] Carins
Answer
Correct Answer: B [Ethylene]
Notes:
Ripening is a process in fruits that causes them to become more palatable. Most fruits produce a gaseous compound called ethylene that starts the ripening process. Ethylene Gas Can be Used to Regulate Fruit Ripening.
2.Who among the following is considered to be the father of antiseptic surgery?
[A] Dr. Lineus Pauling
[B] Dr. Joseph Lister
[C] Robert Koch
[D] Louis pasteur
Answer
Correct Answer: B [Dr. Joseph Lister]
Notes:
Dr. Joseph Lister was a British surgeon and a pioneer of the antiseptic surgery. His research into bacteriology and infection in wounds, raised his skillful operative technique, that was similar to his peers.
3.Which of the following Kingdom represents bacteria?
[A] Monera
[B] Protista
[C] Protozoa
[D] Metazoa
Answer
Correct Answer: A [Monera]
Notes:
The Monera kingdom contains unicellular organisms with a prokaryotic cell organization, like bacteria. They are single-celled organisms with no true nuclear membrane. The taxon Monera was first proposed as a phylum by Ernst Haeckel in 1866.
4.Bleaching Powder is a compound of _______?
[A] Calcium
[B] Sodium
[C] Magnesium
[D] Sulphur
Answer
Correct Answer: A [Calcium]
Notes:
Bleaching powder is chemically, calcium oxychloride (CaOCl2). Bleaching powder is manufactured using Backmann’s plant in which slack lime and Chlorine are made to react to create Bleaching Powder.
Bleaching powder is a yellowish white powder with a strong smell of chlorine. When exposed to air, bleaching powder gives a smell of chlorine. This is because bleaching powder reacts with carbon dioxide from the atmosphere to produce calcium carbonate and chlorine.
5.In which part of the human body “Pleura” is found?
[A] Lungs
[B] Brain
[C] Liver
[D] Heart
Answer
Correct Answer: A [Lungs]
Notes:
A pleura is a serous membrane which folds back onto itself to form a two-layered membranous pleural sac. It surrounds each lung and attach to the internal surface of the thoracic cavity.
6.If a person wants to increase the level of good Cholesterol in his / her body, which among the following you would advise?
Increase the use of trans fatty acids in diet
Stop smoking
Consumption of omega-3 fatty acids
Choose the correct option:
[A] 1, 2 & 3
[B] Only 1 & 3
[C] Only 2 & 3
[D] Only 3
Answer
Correct Answer: C [Only 2 & 3]
Notes:
Trans fats are not essential fatty acids. The consumption of trans fats increases the risk of coronary heart disease by raising levels of LDL cholesterol and lowering levels of “good” HDL cholesterol.
7.Human Papilloma Virus is related to which of the following diseases?
[A] Prostate Cancer
[B] Cervical Cancer
[C] Lymphatic Filariasis
[D] Leukemia
Answer
Correct Answer: B [Cervical Cancer]
Notes:
Human papilloma virus (HPV) is a viral infection that’s passed between people through skin-to-skin contact. There are over 100 varieties of HPV. Human Papilloma Virus is 0related to Cervical cancer.
8.Consider the following physical quantities:
Speed
Velocity
Amplitude
Acceleration
Which of the above remain unchanged during Uniform Circular Motion?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] Only 2 & 4
Answer
Correct Answer: C [ Only 1 & 3]
Notes:
With the continuous change in direction there is change in velocity and acceleration.
9.Consider the following diseases:
1. Encephalitis
2. Meningitis
3. Pneumonia
Which among the above can be caused by Bacteria, Virus as well as Fungi?
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer
Correct Answer: D [ 1, 2 & 3]
Notes:
Encephalitis and Meningitis Viral encephalitis can be caused by rabies virus, Herpes simplex, poliovirus, measles virus, and JC virus. Bacterial encephalitis can be caused by certain bacteria. Similarly, a fungus called Cryptococcus neoformans causes Fungal encephelitis. Similarly, Meningitis can also be Viral, Bacterial or Fungal. Pneumonia Bacteria are the most common cause of community acquired pneumonia, with Streptococcus pneumoniae isolated in nearly 50% of cases, yet in adults, viruses account for approximately a third of pneumonia cases. Commonly implicated agents include: rhinoviruses,coronaviruses, influenza virus, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), adenovirus etc. Fungi may also cause Pneumonia. Usually it may occur in individuals with weakened immune systems due to AIDS, immunosuppressive drugs, or other medical problems. Fungal pneumonia is most often caused by Histoplasma capsulatum, blastomyces, Cryptococcus neoformans, Pneumocystis jiroveci, and Coccidioides immitis.Further, some parasites such as Toxoplasma gondii, Strongyloides stercoralis, and Ascariasis also may lead to Pneumonia.
10.Consider the following statements about Lipids:
Lipids are made up of fatty acids and glycerol
Lipids are hydrophobic which means they do not mix with water
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
[A] 1 Only
[B] 2 Only
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Answer
Correct Answer: C [ Both 1 & 2]
Notes:
Both are correct statements
Lipids are hydrophobic which means they do not mix with water. Lipids pack a lot of energy or calories into a small space. Lipids are made up of fatty acids and glycerol.
11.What will be the total energy of a satellite moving around the earth in a circular orbit with speed v and having mass m.
[A] -1/2 m v 3
[B] 2 m v 2
[C] 1/2 m v 3
[D] -1/2 m v 2
Answer
Correct Answer: D [-1/2 m v 2]
Notes:
The total energy of a satellite moving around the earth in a circular orbit with speed v and having mass m is -1/2 m v 2.
12.Which of the following instruments is used to measure the relative density of a liquid?
[A] Hydrometer
[B] Hygrometer
[C] Lactometer
[D] Gravitimeter
Answer
Correct Answer: A [ Hydrometer ]
Notes:
A hydrometer is an instrument used to measure the specific gravity or relative density of liquids, i.e. the ratio of the density of the liquid to the density of water.
13.What is the relationship between the spring constant k and the spring length in case of spring pendulum?
[A] spring constant is inversely proportional to the spring length
[B] spring constant is directly proportional to the spring length
[C] spring constant is independent of the spring length
[D] spring constant is twice the spring length
Answer
Correct Answer: A [spring constant is inversely proportional to the spring length]
Notes:
The spring constant of a spring pendulum is inversely proportional to the spring length.
14.What do we call the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to speed of light in a medium?
[A] power of that medium
[B] refractive index of that medium
[C] reflective index of that medium
[D] None
Answer
Correct Answer: B [refractive index of that medium]
Notes:
The refractive index of a transparent medium is the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to that in the medium.
15.What is the work done to move a unit charge from point to another called as?
[A] Current
[B] Resistance
[C] Conductance
[D] Potential Difference
Answer
Correct Answer: D [Potential Difference ]
Notes:
Work done to move a unit charge from one point to another is known as the electric potential difference between two points. Potential difference (V) = Work done (W)/Charge (Q) Volt is the SI unit of electric potential difference named after Alessandro Volta
16.Which of the following phenomenon is the basis of an electric generator?
[A] Electromagnetic Induction
[B] Ferroelectric effect
[C] Telluric currents
[D] Electroluminescence
Answer
Correct Answer: A [Electromagnetic Induction]
Notes:
In an electric generator, mechanical energy is used to rotate a conductor in a magnetic field to produce electricity.
17.Which of the following is NOT correct about the use of Quick lime?
[A] Manufacturing of cement
[B] Manufacture of sodium carbonate
[C] Purification of sugar
[D] used to extinguish fire
Answer
Correct Answer: D [used to extinguish fire]
Notes:
(i) It is an important primary material for manufacturing cement and is the cheapest form of alkali. (ii) It is used in the manufacture of sodium carbonate from caustic soda. (iii) It is employed in the purification of sugar and in the manufacture of dye stuffs.
18.Who among the following conceived the first recognizable periodic table of chemical elements?
[A] Marie Skłodowska Curie
[B] Dmitri Mendeleev
[C] John Dalton
[D] Amedeo Avogadro
Answer
Correct Answer: B [Dmitri Mendeleev]
Notes:
The first periodic table which organizes all chemical elements by the number of protons in a given atom and other properties was developed by Russian scientist Dmitry Mendeleev in 1869. On the occasion of the 150th Anniversary of the inception of the periodic table, 2019 is being celebrated as International Year of the Period Table of Chemical Elements by UNESCO.
19.Which of the following minerals contain mercury?
Cinnabar
Corderoite
Livingstonite
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
[A] Only 1 & 2
[B] Only 2 & 3
[C] Only 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3
Answer
Correct Answer: D [1, 2 & 3 ]
Notes:
Cinnabar is a mercury sulfide (HgS) mineral. Corderoite is mercury sulfide chloride mineral and is very rare. Livingstonite is a mercury antimony sulfosalt mineral.
20.What is the reason for different molecular arrangements as per VSEPR theory?
[A] To minimize mutual repulsion
[B] To minimize mutual attraction
[C] To minimize surface tension
[D] To have the minimum area
Answer
Correct Answer: A [To minimize mutual repulsion]
Notes:
As per the Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory, the electron pairs (both bonding and non-bonding) around the central atom in a molecule arrange themselves in space in such a way that they minimize their mutual repulsion.
21.Which of the following represents the Snell’s law?
[A] sine of angle of incidence/sine of angle of refraction = constant
[B] cosine of angle of incidence/cosine of angle of refraction = constant
[C] tangent of angle of incidence/tangent of angle of refraction = constant
[D] angle of incidence – angle of refraction = constant
Answer
Correct Answer: A [sine of angle of incidence/sine of angle of refraction = constant]
Notes:
The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a constant, for the light of a given colour and for the given pair of media. This law is also known as Snell’s law of refraction.
22.Which of the following is true about a concave lens?
[A] power of a concave lens is positive
[B] power of a concave lens is negative
[C] power of a concave lens is zero
[D] None of the above
Answer
Correct Answer: B [power of a concave lens is negative]
Notes:
The power of a convex lens is positive and that of a concave lens is negative.
23.What do we call the magnitude of the drift velocity per unit electric field?
[A] Current Density
[B] Mobility
[C] Conductance
[D] Resistance
Answer
Correct Answer: B [Mobility ]
Notes:
Mobility is the magnitude of the drift velocity per unit electric field.
24.What is the relationship between the magnetic field in the straight conductor and the distance from it?
[A] magnetic field decreases as the distance increases
[B] magnetic field increases as the distance increases
[C] magnetic field is independent of the distance
[D] None of the above
Ansdwer
Correct Answer: A [magnetic field decreases as the distance increases]
Notes:
The magnetic field produced by a given current in the conductor decreases as the distance from it increases.
25.What is the value of Rydberg constant?
[A] 1.0973 x 103 m-1
[B] 1.0973 x 105 m-1
[C] 1.0973 x 107 m-1
[D] 1.0973 x 109 m-1
Answer
Correct Answer: C [1.0973 x 107 m-1]
Notes:
The value of Rydberg constant is 1.0973 x 107 m-1
26.Which of the following are the limitations of Bohr’s model of atom?
[A] it cannot explain spectrum of atoms containing more than one electron
[B] it cannot explain the Zeeman effect
[C] it cannot explain the Stark effect
[D] All of the above
Answer
Correct Answer: D [All of the above]
Notes:
Bohr’s model of atom cannot explain spectrum of atoms containing more than one electron. Also, it cannot explain the Zeeman effect i.e. splitting of spectral line in presence of magnetic field. It also fails to explain Stark effect i.e. splitting of spectral line in presence of electric field.
27.Which of the following is correct about Mendeleev’s Periodic Table?
[A] Argon is placed before Potassium
[B] Cobalt is placed before Nickel
[C] Tellurium is placed before iodine
[D] All of the above
Answer
Correct Answer: D [All of the above]
Notes:
All statements represent the anomalous pairs of elements in Mendeleev’s Periodic Table. The atomic mass of argon is 39.9 and that of potassium 39.1. But argon is placed before potassium in the periodic table. Similarly, Tellurium is placed before iodine and Cobalt is placed before Nickel.
28.Which of the following is highly compressible?
[A] Solid
[B] Liquid
[C] Gas
[D] None of the above
Answer
Correct Answer: C [Gas]
Notes:
Gases show high compressible because the molecules of gases are very very loosely packed and there is too much space between them so by compressing it is comes close and close and close and as its intermolecular space is more than solid and liquid it can be more compressed compared to the both.
29.Which of the following is the subject matter of genetics?
[A] Forms and features of plant parts
[B] Heredity and variations
[C] the disorder of living beings
[D] None of these
Answer
Correct Answer: B [Heredity and variations]
Notes:
Genetics is the study of heredity in general and genes in particular. Genetics is one of the central pillars of biology and overlaps with many other fields such as agriculture, medicine and biotechnology.
30.Which branch of biology is known for the scientific study of the distribution of animals on Earth?
[A] Phytogeography
[B] Zoogeography
[C] Psychobiology
[D] Zoophytology
Answer
Correct Answer: B [Zoogeography]
Notes:
Zoogeography is the branch of biogeography that deals with the geographical distribution of animal species.
